The final will be cumulative. To prepare for the final, review the quizzes and the earlier practice quizzes as well as these problems.
SELECT THE BEST ANSWER FOR EACH PROBLEM.
1. During its 1st quarter phase, the Moon rises at approximately:
a) noon.
b) 6 PM.
c) midnight.
d) 6 AM.
e) 3 AM.
2. Pluto is at opposition every 1.005 years. This is
because:
a) Pluto orbits around the Sun, with respect to the stars, once every 1.005 years.
b) Pluto has almost the same orbital velocity around the Sun, in km/s, as
the Earth does.
c) Pluto's orbital velocity is much smaller than that of Earth,
so it barely moves during the time it takes Earth to orbit the Sun.
d) Pluto is 1.005 A.U. from the Sun.
e) Pluto is 1.005 light years from the Sun.
3. For astronauts living on the Moon, the time between sunsets is:
a) 23 hours 56 minutes.
b) 24 hours.
c) 27.3 days.
d) 29.5 days.
e) The Sun does not rise or set for people living on the Moon;
it just stays in the same location in the sky.
4. During the Winter Solstice:
a) The Declination of the Sun is 0 degrees.
b) The Declination of the Sun is 23.5 degrees.
c) The Declination of the Sun is -23.5 degrees.
d) The Declination of the Sun is 90 degrees.
e) The Declination of the Sun is 12 hours.
5. The closest star(s) to us, besides the Sun, is:
a) Vega (alpha Lyra).
b) Polaris (alpha Ursa Minor).
c) Betelgeuse (alpha Ori).
d) Aldebaran (alpha Tau).
e) alpha Centauri.
6. An arcminute is
approximately:
a) the distance between the Earth and the Sun.
b) the angular size of your little figure at arm's length.
c) 1/60th of the angular size of your little figure at arm's length.
d) the angular size of a dime seen at a distance of two miles.
e) the distance light travels in a minute.
7. Which of the following objects
is NOT always found near the ecliptic?
a) the Moon.
b) the Sun.
c) Mars.
d) Venus.
e) The North Star.
8. Two trees seen in the distance, Trees A and B, both have angular sizes of 10 degrees,
but tree B is 10 times further away than tree A.
Tree A is known to be 20 feet tall. How tall is Tree B?
a) 2 feet tall.
b) 10 feet tall.
c) 20 feet tall.
d) 200 feet tall.
e) 2000 feet tall.
9. Polaris is on the horizon for:
a) People on the Earth's equator, all night long.
b) People at the North Pole, all night long.
c) People in Johnson City, all night long.
d) People in Johnson City, twice a day.
e) People in Johnson City, during the Vernal and Autumnal Equinoxes.
10. The Pleiades rises in the sky at 10:00 PM on September 30
for an observer in Johnson City.
When does it rise on October 1?
a) 9:56 PM.
b) 10:00 PM.
c) 10:04 PM.
d) 10:10 PM.
e) The Pleiades does not rise or set in the sky
for an observer in Johnson City.
11. In astronomy, the term `Declination' refers to:
a) The angle between the North Star and the horizon
in the sky.
b) The projection of the Earth's latitude onto
the sky.
c) The slow wobbling of the Earth's axis with time.
d) The celestial coordinate that runs parallel
to the Earth's longitude, starting at 0h Dec.
at the position of the Sun during the Vernal
Equinox.
e) The tilt of the Earth's axis, relative to the ecliptic.
12. The angle between the Sun and the Moon in the sky during
a waxing gibbous moon is:
a) 5 degrees.
b) 45 degrees.
c) 90 degrees.
d) 135 degrees.
e) 180 degrees.
13. The Earth spins once on its axis relative to the stars:
a)
every 23 hours 56 minutes.
b) every 24 hours.
c) every 27.3 days.
d) every 29.5 days.
e) every 365 days.
14. The planets:
a) Always move eastward across the sky, relative to the stars.
b) Each have their own particular constellation that they
are always found in (for example, Mars is in Ares).
c) Have much smaller angular sizes on the sky than the stars.
d) Can all be observed at midnight.
e) Are always found in one of the 13 constellations along the zodiac.
15. In astronomy, the term `Celestial Meridian' refers to:
a) The angle between the North Star and the horizon
in the sky.
b) The projection of the Earth's latitude onto
the sky.
c) The horizon.
d) An imaginary line that divides the sky into two halves,
east and west.
e) The point in the sky directly above the observer.
16. Which of the following planets is tidally locked to
its moon?
a) The Earth.
b) Mars.
c) Neptune.
d) Uranus.
e) Pluto.
17. The Earth's spin axis precesses with a period of:
a) 23 hours 56 minutes.
b) 24 hours.
c) 27.3 days.
d) 29.5 days.
e) 26,000 years.
18. An annular eclipse is:
a) when the moon is in the Earth's shadow.
b) a lunar eclipse.
c) an eclipse that occurs every year.
d) when the Moon turns reddish, because of refraction of sunlight
by the Earth's atmosphere.
e) when the angular size of the Moon is too small to block the full
face of the Sun.
19. A very bright object seen by an observer near the equator in the constellation of Ares
at midnight cannot be:
a) Venus.
b) Mars.
c) Jupiter.
d) Saturn.
e) Any planet.
20.
The weight of an object:
a) is the same as its mass.
b) is the same no matter where the object is in the Universe.
c) depends upon the
gravitational field the object is in.
d) is measured in units of kilograms.
e) is measured in units of slugs.
21. Which of the
following is NOT attributed to
Galileo?
a) Developed the universal gravitation equation.
b) First to use a telescope to
study astronomical objects.
c) Discovered the four large moons
of Jupiter.
d) Determined that objects of different
mass fall at the same rate.
e) First to observe the phases of Venus.
22. Planet A and Planet B have the same mass, but
Planet A has a larger radius. Assuming the temperatures
of their atmospheres are the same:
a) The two planets lose atmosphere into space at the same rate.
b) Planet A loses atmosphere faster than Planet B.
c) Planet B loses atmosphere faster than Planet A.
d) Neither planet loses any atmosphere.
e) All of the above.
23. Aristarchus
is best known for:
a) explaining the phases of the Moon and eclipses.
b) observing the phases of Venus.
c) measuring the relative sizes of the Sun, Moon, and Earth.
d) measuring the diameter of the Earth.
e) writing the Almagest.
24. The global magnetic field of Venus
is caused by:
a) convection in the asthenosphere (upper
mantle).
b) the solid inner core of Venus,
which acts like a giant
magnet.
c) moving charged particles in the
liquid outer core of Venus.
d) charged particles in the solar wind
interacting with Venus's atmosphere.
e) Venus does not have a global magnetic field.
25. The distance from the
Earth to the Sun is:
a) 1018= one billion billion
times the diameter
of the Sun.
b) one billion times the diameter of the Sun.
c) 100 times the diameter of the Sun.
d) 10 times the diameter of the Sun.
e) 3 times the diameter of the Sun.
26. For which of the following objects is
there currently controversy about whether or not volcanism
is currently going on?
a) Mercury.
b) Venus.
c) The Moon.
d) Mars.
e) All of the above.
27. If Mercury travels around the Sun two times (relative to the stars),
how many times has it spun on its axis (relative to the stars)?
a) None.
b) Once.
c) Twice.
d) Three times.
e) Four times.
28. Which of the following objects was mapped by the
Messenger spacecraft?
a) Mercury.
b) Venus.
c) the Moon.
d) Mars.
e) Ganymede.
29.
What was the first spacecraft to successfully
land on Mars?
a) Magellan.
b) Viking 1.
c) Mariner 10.
d) Mars Odyssey 2001.
e) No spacecraft has ever landed safely on Mars.
30. Phobos is a moon of:
a) Mars.
b) Jupiter.
c) Saturn.
d) Uranus.
e) Neptune.
31. The planets are always seen:
a) in the circumpolar region of the sky.
b) near the ecliptic.
c) near the Celestial Equator.
d) near the meridian.
e) near the zenith.
32. Why does Jupiter have a reddish color?
a) There is a lot of iron-rich dust in its atmosphere.
b) It has large amounts of methane in its atmosphere.
c) It is redshifted relative to the Earth.
d) It is very hot compared to the Earth, so it glows
with a reddish light.
e) At the present time, we do not know exactly what
produces the colors in Jupiter's atmosphere.
33. The most geologically active object in the
solar system is:
a) Mars.
b) Earth.
c) Ganymede.
d) Europa.
e) Io.
34. The Trojan asteroids:
a) Are moons orbiting Jupiter in retrograde orbits.
b) Orbit the Sun at Jupiter's Lagrangian points.
c) Cross the orbit of the Earth.
d) Are in the Kuiper Belt.
e) Are in the Oort Cloud.
35. For astronauts living
on the Moon, the time between Earthrises
is:
a) 23 hours 56 minutes.
b) 24 hours.
c) 27.3 days.
d) 29.5 days.
e) The Earth does not rise or set for people
living on the Moon; it just stays in the
same location in the sky.
36. Which of the following moons is geologically active
at the present time?
a) Enceladus.
b) Mimas.
c) Hyperion.
d) Callisto.
e) Phobos.
37. A first quarter moon is on the meridian:
a) at noon.
b) at 6 PM.
c) at midnight.
d) at 6 AM.
e) at 9 AM.
38. The orbit of Saturn around the
Sun is:
a) an ellipse, with the Sun at the center.
b) an ellipse, with the Sun at one focus
and the other empty.
c) an ellipse, with the Sun at one
focus and Jupiter at the other.
d) an ellipse, with Earth at the center
and the Sun at one foci.
e) a perfect circle.
39. A comet with a very elongated
orbit and a period of millions of years moves fastest,
in km/s, when it is:
a) In the Oort Cloud.
b) Inside of the Earth's orbit.
c) Crossing the orbit of Mars.
d) Passing Jupiter.
e) It always moves at the same speed.
40. Which of the following structures
may have been aligned astronomically?
a) The Big Horn Medicine Wheel.
b) The Caracol Tower in Mexico.
c) Stonehenge.
d) Carhenge.
e) All of the above.
41. Which of the following is the
title of an
ancient
book dealing with astronomical concepts?
a) The Dresden Codex.
b) The Almagest.
c) On the Revolution of the Celestial Sphere.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
42. What type of light has wavelengths
between that of Gamma Rays and ultraviolet
light?
a) X-rays.
b) visible.
c) infrared.
d) radio.
e) visible and X-rays.
43. What did the spectra
of the vapor lamps (discharge tubes) shown in class
and lab look like?
a) complete rainbows.
b) complete rainbows, with
a few specific colors missing.
c) just bright lines at certain specific colors.
d) a blackbody (thermal) spectrum.
e) an absorption-line spectrum.
44. Which of the following is a unit
of energy?
a) a watt.
b) a joule.
c) a joule/second.
d) a m/s2.
e) a Hertz.
45. An atom of deuterium has a mass
approximately equal to that of:
a) an atom of ordinary hydrogen.
b) two ordinary hydrogen atoms.
c) a 4He atom.
d) a 12C atom.
e) a 14C atom.
46. In a period of an hour, a 5 meter
telescope gathers how many more photons
than a 1 meter telescope does in the same amount of
time?
a) five times as many.
b) 10 times as many.
c) 25 times as many.
d) 75 times as many.
e) they gather the same number of photons.
47. When an electron in
an atom jumps from a higher
energy level to a lower energy level,
the atom:
a) emits a photon of light.
b) absorbs a photon of light.
c) becomes excited.
d) becomes ionized.
e) becomes an isotope.
48. Which is the
correct order of the following objects,
in terms of diameter,
from SMALLEST to LARGEST?
a) Pluto, Titan, Ganymede, Mercury.
b) Pluto, Titan, Mercury, Ganymede.
c) Pluto, Mercury, Ganymede, Titan.
d) Pluto, Mercury, Titan, Ganymede.
e) Titan, Ganymede, Pluto, Mercury.
49. Venus is made of:
a) mostly water, with some rocky material.
b) mostly rocky material.
c) rock and metals.
d) about half ice and half rock.
e) almost all iron.
50. The Greenhouse effect
is strongest on which planet or Moon?
a) Mercury.
b) Venus.
c) Earth.
d) Mars.
e) The Moon.
51. Which of the following geological
features were caused by two tectonic
plates pulling apart?
a) The Andes Mountains.
b) the deep sea
trench along the western coast
of South America.
c) The Hawaiian Islands.
d) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
e) All of the above.
52. The ionosphere of the Earth:
a) blocks most of the UV from the
Sun.
b) causes plate tectonics.
c) is responsible for the Earth's
magnetic field.
d) is the lowest layer of the
atmosphere.
e) is ionized by X-rays from the Sun.
53.
Why does the sky look pinkish on Mars?
a) Methane in its atmosphere absorbs blue sunlight.
b) CO2 in its atmosphere absorbs blue sunlight.
c) Thick sulfuric acid clouds absorb blue sunlight.
d) Iron-rich dust particles are suspended in the atmosphere.
e) The atmosphere is redshifted.
54. Why isn't Hyperion tidally locked
to its planet?
a) It is too massive.
b) It is too far away from its planet to be locked.
c) Titan breaks the tidal lock of Saturn.
d) It is a perfect sphere, thus its planet cannot lock onto it.
e) It is too hot.
55. The Cassini Division is:
a) a gigantic crack in the surface of Mars.
b) a gigantic crater on Callisto.
c) the wavelength that separates ultraviolet from visible
light.
d) a gap in the rings of Saturn.
e) the semi-liquid upper mantle of the Earth.
56. Which planets have measured global magnetic fields?
a) All of the planets except Pluto.
b) All of the terrestrial planets, but none of the Jovian planets, and
not Pluto.
c) Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
d) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, and Saturn.
e) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
57.
The ecliptic is:
a) the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
b) the projection of the Earth's equator on the celestial sphere.
c) when the moon passes between the Earth and the Sun.
d) the point in the sky directly above you.
e) the shadow of the moon on the Earth.
58. A sidereal day on Earth is equal to:
a) 23 hours 56 minutes.
b) 24 hours.
c) 27.3 days.
d) 29.5 days.
d) 365 days.
59. The Vernal Equinox is:
a) the longest day of the year.
b) the shortest day of the year.
c) approximately September 21.
d) when the Sun crosses the ecliptic in the spring.
e) when the Earth is closest to the Sun.
60. The distance from the Earth to the alpha
Centauri triplet is:
a) 1 A.U.
b) 4.3 A.U.
c) 8.3 light minutes.
d) 4.3 light years.
e) 150,000 light years.
61.
The eccentricity of the Earth's orbit is 0.02. The maximum distance
the Earth is from the Sun is 1.02 AU, and the closest distance to the
Sun is 0.98 AU. What is the distance between the Sun and the other (empty)
focus of the ellipse marking the Earth's orbit?
a) 0.01 AU.
b) 0.02 AU.
c) 0.04 AU.
d) 0.08 AU.
e) 0.98 AU.
62. The Earth is 81 times more massive than the Moon.
How does the gravitational force on the Earth due to the Moon
compare with the gravitational force on the Moon due to the Earth?
a) the gravitational force on the Earth due to the Moon is 81 times
smaller.
b) the gravitational force on the Earth due to the Moon is 812
= 6561 times
smaller.
c) the gravitational force on the Earth due to the Moon is square
root of 81 = 9 times
smaller.
d) the gravitational force on the Earth due to the Moon is 81 times
larger.
e) the two forces are the same.
63. If the mass of the Earth suddenly
tripled,
how would the gravitational force between the Earth and the Moon change?
a) it would increase by a factor of nine.
b) it would increase by a factor of three.
c) it would decrease by a factor of three.
d) it would decrease by a factor of nine.
e) it would stay the same.
64. An astronaut on the International Space Station orbiting Earth:
a) has a mass of 0 kg.
b) does not feel any gravitational force.
c) is not accelerating.
d) is constantly accelerating.
e) has a mass equal to 1/6th of his/her mass on Earth.
65. Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation can be
written mathematically as:
a) F = GM1M2/R2
b) F = GM1/M2R2
c) F = GM1M2/R
d) F = GM1M2R2
e) F = M1M2/GR2
66. The mass of Mars
is about 1/10th that of the Earth, and the radius
of Mars is about 1/2 that of Earth.
How would your weight on Mars compare with that on Earth?
a) Your weight on Mars would be 1/10th that on Earth.
b) Your weight on Mars would be 1/2 that on Earth.
c) Your weight on Mars would be (1/10)/((1/2)^2) = 0.4 times that on Earth.
d) Your weight on Mars would be twice that on Earth.
e) Your weight on Mars would be the same as on Earth.
67.
If you doubled the mass of the Earth, how would the gravitational
force between the Earth and the Sun change?
a) it would increase by a factor of two.
b) it would decrease by a factor of two.
c) it would increase by a factor of four.
d) it would decrease by a factor of four.
e) it would stay the same.
68. If the distance between the Earth and the Moon increased by a factor
of 10, how would the gravitational force between them change?
a) It would stay the same.
b) It would increase by a factor of 10.
c) It would decrease by a factor of 10.
d) It would increase by a factor of 100.
e) It would decrease by a factor of 100.
69. Which of the following planets has the fastest orbital velocity
around the Sun, in km/s?
a) Pluto.
b) Venus.
c) Mars.
d) Saturn.
e) Mercury.
70.
The Sun is 330,000 times more massive than the Earth.
How does the gravitational force on the Sun due to the Earth compare
to that on the Earth due to the Sun?
a) the gravitational force on the Sun due to the Earth
is 330,000 times smaller.
b) the gravitational force on the Sun due to the Earth
is 330,000 times larger.
c) the gravitational force on the Sun due to the Earth
is the same.
d) the gravitational force on the Sun due to the Earth
is 330,000^2 = 1.1 X 10^11 times smaller.
e) the gravitational force on the Sun due to the Earth
is 330,000^2 = 1.1 X 10^11 times larger.
71. If the distance between the earth and the sun were increased to
5 A.U., how would the gravitational force between them change?
a) It would increase by a factor of 5.
b) It would decrease by a factor of 5.
c) It would increase by a factor of 25.
d) It would decrease by a factor of 25.
e) It would stay the same.
72. According to Newton's Laws of Motion, if no force
acts on a planet it will:
a) stop moving.
b) move in a straight line at constant speed.
c) move on a circular path at constant speed.
d) slow down.
e) speed up.
73. Pluto has a mass approximately 6 times that of its
moon Charon. The gravitational force that Pluto exerts
on Charon is therefore:
a) 6 times that exerted on Pluto by Charon.
b) 1/6th that exerted on Pluto by Charon.
c) 36 times that exerted on Pluto by Charon.
d) 1/36th that exerted on Pluto by Charon.
e) the same as that exerted on Pluto by Charon.
74. If the
distance between the Earth and the Sun
changed to 0.25 A.U., the force between them would:
a) Increase by a factor of 4.
b) Increase by a factor of 16.
c) Stay the same.
d) Decrease by a factor of one quarter.
e) Decrease by a factor of 1/16.
75. If the distance between Jupiter and Callisto increased by a factor
of 7, how would the gravitational force between them change?
a) It would stay the same.
b) It would increase by a factor of 7.
c) It would decrease by a factor of 7.
d) It would increase by a factor of 49.
e) It would decrease by a factor of 49.
76. An astronaut in the International Space Station:
a) Feels no gravitational force.
b) Has no mass.
c) Is falling towards the Earth at the same rate as the Space Station.
d) Has no inertia.
e) Has a constant velocity.
77.
The diffraction of light is:
a) the bending of light when it passes from one medium to another.
b) the bending of light waves around corners.
c) the reflection of light waves.
d) the minimum separation between two stars in the sky where an observer
can just distinguish two independent stars.
e) thermal radiation.
78. The HET optical telescope at McDonald Observatory in Texas
and the Caltech Submillimeter Observatory (CSO) in Hawaii are both 10 meter
telescopes. Which gets the best resolution images?
a) The HET telescope.
b) The CSO.
c) They have the same resolution.
d) It is impossible to determine which has the highest resolution.
e) Answers b) and c) above.
79.
How does the light-gathering power of the SARA 0.9 meter (90 cm) telescope
compare with that of the 8 inch (20 cm) Meade telescopes at the ETSU
Observatory?
a) the light-gathering power of the SARA telescope is
90/20 = 4.5 times larger.
b) the light-gathering power of the SARA telescope is
(90)^2/(20)^2 = 20.25 times larger.
c) the light-gathering power of the SARA telescope is
the same as that of the 8 inch Meade telescopes.
d) the light-gathering power of the SARA telescope is
smaller by a factor of
20/90 = 1/4.5 = 0.22.
e) the light-gathering power of the SARA telescope is
smaller by a factor of
(20)^2/(90)^2 = 1/20.25 = 0.0494.
80. Which of the following type of telescope has the
WORSE resolution, assuming the mirrors are all the same size and
the telescopes are all in space?
a) a radio telescope.
b) a long-wavelength infrared telescope.
c) a short-wavelength infrared telescope.
d) an ultraviolet telescope.
e) an optical telescope.
81. What is the name of the first rover on Mars?
a) Viking 1.
b) Soujourner.
c) Venera 7.
d) Mariner 10.
e) Lowell.
82.
Which of the following features are only rarely seen on the surface of the Moon?
a)
Craters.
b) Hardened lava flows.
c) Volcanic mountains.
d) Material ejected by a collision.
e) Rilles.
83. The large dark spots one can see on the face of the Moon
without a telescope are:
a) very cratered, compared to the rest of the Moon.
b) very mountainous, compared to the rest of the Moon.
c) not as cratered as the lighter regions.
d) composed of the oldest known rocks in the solar system.
e) about the diameter of the Earth.
84. What is the evidence that Triton
was gravitationally captured by Neptune, rather than being formed
with Neptune?
a) it is too hot to have formed
with Neptune.
b) it has the same composition as Jupiter.
c) it has the same composition as Earth.
d) it has a retrograde orbit.
e) it is bigger than Mercury.
85. The Dresden Codex is:
a) A book that summarized ancient Greek astronomy.
b) A very large `wheel' made out of rocks in northern Wyoming.
c) A special encription used to interpret
horoscopes.
d) A book describing Mayan astronomy.
e) Copernicus' book which promoted a heliocentric
Universe.
86. The luminous star Sirius A is twice as massive
as its companion Sirius B.
The distance to Sirius A from the center of mass of the system is therefore:
a) two times larger than the distance from Sirius B to the center of mass.
b) one half the distance from Sirius B to the center of mass.
c) four times larger than the distance from Sirius B to the center of mass.
d) one quarter the distance from Sirius B to the center of mass.
e) the same as the distance from Sirius B to the center of mass.
87. Interstellar dust grain A has a temperature
of 50K, while interstellar dust grain B has a temperature
of 100K. Therefore the peak of the spectrum of grain A
has a wavelength:
a) Twice that of grain B.
b) Half that of grain B.
c) Four times that of grain B.
d) One quarter that of grain B.
e) Sixteen times that of grain B.
88. The
imaginary line that divides the sky into
two halves, east and west, is called the:
a) ecliptic.
b) meridian.
c) zenith.
d) declination.
e) right ascension.
89. The star Polaris:
a) Is always at the zenith in Johnson City.
b) Is at the zenith in Johnson City on the Vernal Equinox.
c) Is 36 degrees above the horizon in Johnson City.
d) Is located on the Celestial Equator.
e) Is located near the ecliptic.
90. Precession of the Earth's poles was discovered:
a) by Galileo.
b) by Tycho Brahe.
c) by Kepler.
d) by Copernicus.
e) by ancient Greek and Chinese astronomers.
91. Convection is:
a) In a liquid, dense material sinking and lower density matter rising.
b) Moving charged particles being deflected by a magnetic field.
c) Cool gas/liquid sinking, warm material rising.
d) The absorption of infrared light by certain molecules.
e) The production of a magnetic field by moving charged particles.
92. An excited atom is:
a) an atom which has lost an electron.
b) an atom whose electron has jumped to a higher energy level.
c) an atom whose electrons are all in the lowest energy level.
d) an atom which has more neutrons than protons.
e) an atom that is radioactive.
93. How far is the Sun from Earth?
a) 1 light year.
b) 4.3 light years.
c) 8.3 arcminutes.
d) 8.3 light minutes.
e) 4.3 light minutes.
94. On the Celestial Sphere, the Equinoxes are the points:
a) Directly above and directly below the observer.
b) Directly above the North and South Pole of the Earth.
c) Where the Celestial Equator crosses the Celestial Meridian.
d) Where the Celestial Equator crosses the Ecliptic.
e) Where the Ecliptic crosses the Celestial Meridian.
95. A third quarter moon rises
at what time of day?
a) noon.
b) 6 PM.
c) midnight.
d) 6 AM.
e) 3 AM.
96.
The Sun never crosses in front of which of the following constellations?
a) Taurus.
b) Leo.
c) Sagittarius.
d) Scorpio.
e) Ursa Minor.
97. For which object(s) have we never obtained close-up satellite
pictures?
a) Pluto, comets, and asteroids.
b) asteroids and comet nuclei.
c) comet nuclei.
d) Pluto
e) None of the above.
98. Which of the following objects is spherical in shape?
a) Ceres.
b) Hyperion.
c) Phobos.
d) Deimos.
e) All of the above.
99. The Oort Cloud is:
a) The collection of asteroids that orbit the Sun in the orbit
of Jupiter.
b) The collection of dwarf planets just outside the orbit of
Neptune.
c) A collection of comet nuclei just outside the orbit of Neptune.
d) A collection of comet nuclei about 50,000 A.U. from the Sun.
e) A collection of asteroids orbiting the Sun between the orbit
of Mars and the orbit of Jupiter.
100. Which of the following has the smallest diameter?
a) Callisto.
b) Pluto.
c) Phobos.
d) Io.
e) The Earth's Moon.
101. With a refracting telescope:
a) Different color light comes to a focus at different places.
b) A concave mirror is used to collect light.
c) A convex mirror is used to collect light.
d) Multiple telescopes are used together as a single telescope.
e) A secondary mirror is used to direct the light rays through
a hole in the bottom of the primary mirror.
102. The large heart-shaped feature named
Sputnik Planitia
seen on Pluto by the
New Horizons spacecraft is:
a) Mostly water ice, with few craters.
b) Methane, nitrogen, and CO ice, with few craters.
c) Ancient, very cratered, water ice surface.
d) Ancient, very cratered, rocky surface.
e) Two huge rifts in the surface, similar to the Valles Marineris
on Mars.
103. The orbits of comets are mostly:
a) Round and far from the plane of the ecliptic.
b) Elongated and close to the plane of the ecliptic.
c) Round and close to the plane of the ecliptic.
d) Elongated and far from the plane of the ecliptic.
e) Similar in shape and orientation to those of asteroids.
104. The Cassini Division is:
a) A large gap in the asteroid belt.
b) A large gap in the rings of Saturn.
c) A large gap in the Kuiper belt.
d) A large crack in the surface of Mars.
e) A large gap in the Van Allen belt.
105. Which of the following objects is NOT classified as a dwarf
planet?
a) Ceres.
b) Pluto.
c) Eris.
d) Ganymede.
e) None of the above are dwarf planets.
106. Where is the Sun in the sky on the Summer Solstice?
a) On the Celestial Equator.
b) 90 degrees north of the Celestial Equator.
c) 23.5 degrees north of the Celestial Equator.
d) 23.5 degrees south of the Celestial Equator.
e) 90 degrees south of the Celestial Equator.
107. Which of the following objects is 8.3 light minutes away
from Earth?
a) Alpha Centauri.
b) The Moon.
c) The Sun.
d) The Oort Cloud.
e) Pluto.
108. Relative to the Celestial Coordinate system, Ceres mostly
travels eastwards, but occasionally it turns around and travels
westward for a short distance.
This reversal of direction happens because:
a) Ceres is orbiting Jupiter as Jupiter orbits the Sun.
b) At this point in its orbit, Ceres is on the opposite side of
the Sun from the Earth.
c) Ceres has a peculiar looping orbit, such that it sometimes
changes its direction of motion through space.
d) of the precession of the Earth's spin axis.
e) Earth catches up and passes Ceres in its orbit around the Sun.
109. Neptune:
a) Has been visited by four spacecraft.
b) Has more methane in its atmosphere than the other Jovian planets.
c) Is tipped on its side, with a tilt to its axis relative to the
ecliptic of 98 degrees.
d) Has four intermediate-sized moons, but no moons larger than Pluto.
e) Has a thick layer of liquid metallic hydrogen in its interior.
110. The shift in the observed wavelength of light due to the
relative motion of the source of light and the observer is called:
a) Parallax.
b) Precession.
c) Retrograde Motion.
d) Diffraction.
e) Doppler Shift.
111. A Newtonian design telescope (named after
its inventor Isaac Newton)
is a telescope in which:
a) A convex secondary mirror is used to direct the light rays
through a hole in the bottom of the primary mirror.
b) A primary lens is used to collect light, and directs
the light through an eyepiece.
c) Three mirrors are used to direct light to a
location that is fixed, no matter which direction
the primary mirror is pointing.
d) A flat secondary mirror is used to direct the light rays
out of the path of the primary mirror.
e) There is no secondary mirror: the detector is in front of
the primary mirror.
112. During a third quarter moon,
when the Sun is rising in the East, where is the Moon in the sky?
a) on the celestial meridian.
b) setting in the west.
c) it is also rising in the east; the Sun and Moon are less than
5 degrees apart in the sky.
d) it varies from month to month; the angle between the Sun
and Moon on the sky during a first quarter moon varies from zero degrees
to 180 degrees depending upon the time of year.
e) the Moon is not visible; it is on the other side of the Earth.
113. The equation P2 = a3, where P is the sidereal
period of a planet and a the semi-major axis of its orbit, is known as:
a) Kepler's Third Law.
b) Newton's Second Law.
c) Newton's Third Law.
d) Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation.
e) Copernicus' Law of Planetary Orbits.
114. The Kirkwood Gaps are:
a) Gaps in the asteroid belt.
b) Gaps in the rings of Saturn.
c) Gaps in the Kuiper belt.
d) A large crack in the surface of Mars.
e) A large gap in the Van Allen belt.
115. Which of the following is a unit of luminosity?
a) Joules.
b) Hertz.
c) Watts/meter2.
d) Joules/sec.
e) meters/sec2.
116. Which of the following is *NOT* true about radio astronomy?
a) It can be done from the surface of the Earth.
b) The resolution is worse than optical astronomy,
for the same size mirror.
c) The mirrors do NOT need to be smoothly polished,
compared to optical mirrors.
d) The light rays must hit the mirror at very steep angles,
in order to be reflected. Otherwise, the photons go right into the mirror.
e) Some times multiple telescopes are connected together
to produce interferometers.
117. Which of the following *IS* true about ultraviolet astronomy?
a) It can be done from the surface of the Earth.
b) The resolution is worse than optical astronomy,
for the same size mirror.
c) The mirrors do NOT need to be smoothly polished,
compared to optical light mirrors.
d) The Hubble Space Telescope can observe ultraviolet light.
e) Ultraviolet telescopes have not yet been invented.
118. The deep sea trench off the western coast of South America
is an example of:
a) a place where two tectonic plates are pulling apart,
and new crust is being created.
b) hot spot volcanism.
c) sea floor spreading.
d) A subduction zone.
e) A crack in the surface produced by a huge meteorite impact.
119. A large heart-shaped patch of N2 ice,
CH4 ice, and CO ice is seen on the surface of:
a) Callisto.
b) Mars.
c) Pluto.
d) Europa.
e) Mars.
120. Which of the following people first noticed that the
tails of comets always point away from the Sun?
a) Newton.
b) Tycho Brahe.
c) Caroline Herschel.
d) Galileo.
e) Ancient Chinese Astronomers.
121. Which of the following is NOT true of Uranus?
a) It has only been visited by one spacecraft.
b) It has more methane in its atmosphere than Jupiter and Saturn.
c) It is tipped on its side, with a tilt to its axis relative to the
ecliptic of about 98 degrees.
d) It has four intermediate-sized moons, but no moons larger than Pluto.
e) It has a thick layer of liquid metallic hydrogen in its interior.
122. Ceres is:
a) A moon of Jupiter.
b) A Kuiper Belt object.
c) A dwarf planet.
d) A moon of Pluto.
e) A moon of Mars.
123. What is the formula for Wien's Law?
a) lambda(max) is proportional to 1/T.
b) F = MA.
c) F1 = F2.
d) P2 is proportional to a3.
e) Luminosity is proportional to T4.
124. A sidereal day on Earth is:
a) The spin period of the Earth on its axis relative to the Sun.
b) 24 hours.
c) 23 hours 56 minutes.
d) 29.5 days.
e) 365 days.
125. The ancient Greek scientist
Eratosthenes is best known for:
a) the `modern' explanation of the phases of the Moon.
b) the `modern' explanation of eclipses.
c) being the first person to suggest the Earth is a sphere.
d) writing the book `The Almagest'.
e) measuring the diameter of the Earth.
126. When Venus is in its quarter phase (i.e., half the face
is visible), its angular size as seen from Earth is:
a) smaller than when it is in its crescent phase or full phase.
b) smaller than when it is full, but larger than its crescent phase.
c) larger than when it is full, but smaller than its crescent phase.
d) larger than when it is in its crescent phase or full phase.
e) the angular size of Venus is not related to its phase.
127. Tycho Brahe is credited with being:
a) The first person to realize the Earth was spherical.
b) The first person to measure stellar parallax.
c) The first person to measure the parallax of a comet.
d) The first person to realize that the planets orbit the Sun in ellipses.
e) The person to invent the telescope.
128. The quantity 89.5 Hertz equals:
a) 89.5 km/s.
b) 89.5 Joules/sec.
c) 89.5 1/sec.
d) 89.5 meters/sec2.
e) 89.5 Calories/sec.
129. Seismic S waves:
a) Travel through both solids and liquids.
b) Do not travel through pure liquids.
c) Only travel through liquids, not solids.
d) Only travel along the surface of a planet, so are not useful
for studying interiors.
e) Have been detected on all the terrestrial planets.
130. The ionosphere of the Earth reflects
what kind of light?
a) Ultraviolet.
b) Gamma Rays.
c) Long wavelength Radio.
d) Infrared.
e) Visible.
131. A full moon is highest in the sky at approximately:
a) Midnight.
b) 6 AM.
c) 6 PM.
d) Noon.
e) 3 PM.
132. The bottom layer of the Earth's atmosphere is called the:
a) Asthenosphere.
b) Troposphere.
c) Stratosphere.
d) Thermosphere (Ionosphere).
e) Ozone Layer.
133. Which of the following is a moon of Mars?
a) Phobos.
b) Callisto.
c) Charon.
d) Ceres.
e) Ariel.
134. The plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun is called the:
a) Celestial Meridian.
b) Celestial Equator.
c) Declination.
d) Ascension.
e) Ecliptic.
135. Among other accomplishments, Galileo is known for being:
a) the first person to accurately measure the physical
diameter of the Earth.
b) the first person to measure stellar parallax.
c) the first person to estimate the relative sizes of the
Earth, Moon, and Sun.
d) the first person to measure the precession of the Earth's axis.
e) the first person to use a telescope to observe the phases of Venus.
136. Which of the following is covered with water ice, with
the south polar region having very few craters and prominent cracks
called "tiger stripes"?
a) Callisto.
b) Phobos.
c) Io.
d) Mimas.
e) Enceladus.
137. On approximately September 21 each year:
a) the sun is at the zenith at noon for an observer on the Earth's equator.
b) the Earth is closest to the Sun.
c) the Sun has a Declination of 90 degrees.
d) the Sun is located 23.5 degrees north of the Celestial Equator.
e) the Sun is located 23.5 degrees south of the Celestial Equator.
138.
If you lived on the side of the Moon facing away from the Earth:
a) It would always be dark.
b) The Sun would rise every 23 hours 56 minutes.
c) The Sun would rise every 29.5 days.
d) The Sun would rise once per year.
e) The Sun would always be above the horizon.
139.
The city of Fairbanks Alaska is at 65 degrees North latitude and
148 degrees West longitude. If you were in Fairbanks (in the year 2017),
the location of Polaris in the sky would be:
a) at the zenith.
b) due north, 65 degrees above the horizon.
c) due north, 90 - 65 = 25 degrees above the horizon.
d) due north, 148 degrees above the horizon.
e) due north, 148 - 90 = 58 degrees above the horizon.
140. An arcminute is:
a) the distance light travels in a minute.
b) 1/360th of a degree.
c) 1/60th of a degree.
d) 1/(60X60) = 1/3600th of a degree.
e) a unit of frequency corresponding to the number of wavecrests
per minute passing a particular location.
141. An astronaut in space who is in freefall towards the Earth:
a) has no acceleration.
b) has zero gravitational force pulling on him/her.
c) is moving at a constant speed.
d) has no mass.
e) none of the above.
142. A low density cloud of gas in front of a hot solid object
produces:
a) an emission-line spectrum.
b) an absorption-line spectrum.
c) a continuous spectrum.
d) a thermal spectrum.
e) a bright-line spectrum.
143. Which of the following was discovered by Galileo?
a) Europa.
b) Triton.
c) Phobos.
d) Titan.
e) Charon.
144. The mass of the Sun is 318 times that of Jupiter.
This means that the center of mass of the Jupiter-Sun system is:
a) 1/319th of the distance from the Sun to Jupiter, closer to the Sun.
b) 1/319th of the distance from the Sun to Jupiter, closer to Jupiter.
c) 1/3192 = 1/102,000 of the distance from the Sun to
Jupiter, closer to the Sun.
d) 1/3192 = 1/102,000 of the distance from the Sun to
Jupiter, closer to Jupiter.
e) halfway between the Sun and Jupiter.
145. The mass of the Sun is 318 times that of Jupiter.
This means that the gravitational force that Jupiter exerts on
the Sun is:
a) 1/319th the force that the Sun exerts on Jupiter.
b) 319th times the force that the Sun exerts on Jupiter.
c) 1/3192 = 1/102,000 times the force that the Sun
exerts on Jupiter.
d) 3192 = 102,000 times the force that the Sun
exerts on Jupiter.
e) the same as the force that the Sun exerts on Jupiter.
146. The strongest meteor showers are caused by:
a) A sudden increase in the solar wind.
b) The Earth crossing the orbital path of a comet.
c) Exploding stars outside of our solar system.
d) The interaction between the Earth's magnetic field and the solar wind.
e) The cause of meteor showers is unknown.
147. If the Sun were 3 A.U. away from us, how would its brightness
change, relative to what it is now?
a) It would not change.
b) It would DECREASE by a factor of 3.
c) It would DECREASE by a factor of 32 = 9.
d) It would DECREASE by a factor of 34 = 81.
e) It would INCREASE by a factor of 3.
148. What are the zodiacal constellations?
a) The constellations near Ursa Minor in the sky.
b) The constellations that lie along the ecliptic.
c) The constellations near the Celestial North Pole.
d) The constellations along the meridian.
e) The constellations along the Celestial Equator.
149. Ganymede is:
a) A dwarf planet.
b) A moon of Neptune.
c) the most geologically active moon in the solar system.
d) responsible for the Cassini Division in Saturn's rings.
e) The largest moon in the solar system.
Answers: 1a, 2c, 3d, 4c, 5e, 6c, 7e, 8d, 9a, 10a, 11b, 12d, 13a, 14e, 15d, 16e, 17e, 18e, 19a, 20c, 21a, 22b, 23c, 24e, 25c, 26b, 27d, 28a, 29b, 30a, 31b, 32e, 33e, 34b, 35e, 36a, 37b, 38b, 39b, 40e, 41d, 42a, 43c, 44b, 45b, 46c, 47a, 48d, 49c, 50b, 51d, 52e, 53d, 54c, 55d, 56e, 57a, 58a, 59d, 60d, 61c, 62e, 63b, 64d, 65a, 66c, 67c, 68e, 69e, 70c, 71d, 72b, 73e, 74b, 75e, 76c, 77b, 78a, 79b, 80a, 81b, 82c, 83c, 84d, 85d, 86b, 87a, 88b, 89c, 90e, 91c, 92b, 93d, 94d, 95c, 96e, 97e, 98a, 99d, 100c, 101a, 102b, 103d, 104b, 105d, 106c, 107c, 108e, 109b, 110e, 111d, 112a, 113a, 114a, 115d, 116d, 117d, 118d, 119c, 120e, 121e, 122c, 123a, 124c, 125e, 126c, 127c, 128c, 129b, 130c, 131a, 132b, 133a, 134e, 135e, 136e, 137a, 138c, 139b, 140c, 141e, 142b, 143a, 144a, 145e, 146b, 147c, 148b, 149e.